Vacation pay at current rate or accrued rate?
Hi,
If a worker is supposed to accrue vacation pay at 4% of gross pay (corresponding to 2 weeks), and they later get a raise, then if you pay out at the higher wage then they will draw down the available vacation pay faster than 2 weeks.
Does the worker still get 2 weeks time, but just doesn't get a full 2 week's pay if they haven't accrued enough vacation pay? Seems like workers would be annoyed by the prospect of taking vacation time without getting full pay at the current rate.
Thanks.
